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Re: [projectvrm] Re: [WG-UMA] The Death of Safe Harbor is the Ultimate VRM and UMA Legal Opportunity


Chronological Thread 
  • From: Brian Behlendorf < >
  • To: M a r y H o d d e r < >
  • Cc: 'ProjectVRM list' < >
  • Subject: Re: [projectvrm] Re: [WG-UMA] The Death of Safe Harbor is the Ultimate VRM and UMA Legal Opportunity
  • Date: Tue, 6 Oct 2015 12:39:52 -0700 (PDT)


OK, that makes sense.

If I'm a professional photographer, and I've paid you for your consent to use my photo of you in the portfolio I show to prospective clients, should you be able to revoke that consent? Would you have to refund the money?

Why is this different in a scenario where I've "paid" you with free content?

I'm all for willing participants entering into a contract that stipulates such things, perhaps with things like monetary penalties for breach so that there's real teeth. I'm absolutely opposed to it being impossible legally for someone to give irrevocable consent despite their wishes. We've got to get out of the frame of just "Facebook profiles" and think about all the other kinds of information sharing going on.

Brian


On Tue, 6 Oct 2015, M a r y H o d d e r wrote:
HI Brian,
I'm using "revoke" in this sense"

re·voke
rəˈvōk/
verb
1. 1.
put an end to the validity or operation of (a decree, decision, or promise).
"the men appealed and the sentence was revoked"
synonyms:
cancel, repeal, rescind, reverse, annul, nullify, void, 
invalidate,countermand, retract, withdraw, overrule, override; More

Basically what I'm meaning is rescinding consent. IE no more consent going
forward to use my data. Still may be in the data base, but going forward, no
use.

So.. how that happens technically, is another issue.. but the idea is that
from today forward, I should be able to revoke, cancel, rescind, nullify
consent to my participation and use
of my data.

Taking back data from the past may or may not be possible depending on
context. Maybe I can take a copy of my data, and after some time, my data is
mostly or all expunged from the
system where I canceled my consent to participate or allow use.

Does that make sense?

Example:
In the past, I gave consent.
Today, in the present I cancel, revoke, and it depends on the context and
system rules about what that means, as well as policy regimes, etc.
In the future, my consent is no longer there.. and that means going forward
my data shouldn't be used for new business by the company.

BTW, Facebook does allow you to quit, but they keep your data "in case you go back" and
there are people (kids?) who do this daily.. "Deleting" their account and then
reinstating it
after some hour when an adult won't be looking. That isn't revoking consent,
but it's revoking the ability of FB to show the account to friends, public,
etc. So in some sense, there is
a canceling of others seeing or FB displaying your info. So that is a
revocation of display and interaction which means partially there is
revocation.

So companies now are allowing subtly different versions of revocation. And
that's kind of what I'm saying about this.. there is the practical and then
there is the policy or legal
regime.

mary


On Oct 6, 2015, at 11:17 AM, Brian Behlendorf wrote:


On Tue, 6 Oct 2015, M a r y H o d d e r wrote:
Withdrawing consent is an important right, whether a "human
right" or not as classified in legal regimes. However, it's more subtle than just
yes or no, you
have it or you don't. Basically, you ought to be able to revoke
consent going forward, but not backward, and if you shared data, it's
possible there is a
mechanism or right to remove data and actions with it. But those
are the messy details and time, past, present, future changes the right or
ability to revoke.


I am not sure what's meant by "revoking going forward and not backwards".
"Revoking" as a word applies to reversing something that has happened in the past.

It seems like we can have it one of two ways, but not both.  Either

#1) I should be able to grant to you or anyone else an irrevocable
right to my data / software / IP / etc (I'm not compelled to, but I can
choose to)

or

#2) I have the right to claw back any data / software / IP I have ever
granted to you or anyone else, no matter what the terms were on the initial
exchange.


If we have #2, then we can not have Open Source software as we know it
today, where every user has the freedom to modify and copy software without
ever having to worry
about the original authors revoking their rights to do that.  It would
be very bad for Open Source if that were possible - imagine Oracle clawing
back all rights to all the
open source code Sun ever released, or a disgruntled individual open
source developer who released fabulous code embedded everywhere decided it
was time to start asking for
a tithe.

If we have #1, then we get Open Source, but then we also get
corporations like Facebook asking for and receiving consent from end-users to
do whatever they like with
consumer data, irrevocably.  Consumers always have the freedom to not
accept those terms.  Who are regulators to tell them they don't deserve that
choice?

There are nuances and differentiations that one could construct
delicate regulations around, but that kind of hair-splitting seems to
frequently end up with lots of
collateral damage, and lots of money spent on lobbyists and lawyers,
which tends to not go well for individual citizens.

I feel the ghost of Crosbie haunting me as I type this.

If end-users of systems cannot revoke consent going forward, they
have no ability (depending on the context) to take their business elsewhere
in future, or at
least have their information trapped depending. I do think choice
and autonomy are key to human freedom even if it's not classified legally as
a human right.


I love Google's Data Liberation Front and other network services that
make it easy for me to get a copy of the data I contributed in some very
usable form.  I think data
and computational portability is a highly desireable state for any
network service.  I don't see them as human rights though, or desireable to
regulate/legislate - I think
businesses that offer these extra services should be rewarded by the
market.  This is simply not a safety or fair practices kind of issue - this
is not like requiring food
handlers to wash their hands after using the restroom.

Of course where companies are violating the terms under which the user
consented to share their data, e.g. are sharing it with third parties even if
in indirect ways, then
there should be legal recourse, at least civil and I'd argue criminal
as deceptive practices.  But contracts should be able to be entered into
freely.

Brian



On Oct 6, 2015, at 9:45 AM, Brian Behlendorf wrote:



People who publish Open Source software give irrevocable
consents all the time to share their IP - by necessity and without exception.
 Where is an
irrevocable consent defined as alienating a human right?


Brian



On Tue, 6 Oct 2015, Neiditz, Jon wrote:

You cannot give an irrevocable consent, because that
would be attempting to alienate a “human right.”


Jon Neiditz

Kilpatrick Townsend & Stockton LLP

Suite 2800 | 1100 Peachtree Street NE | Atlanta, GA
30309-4528

office 404 815 6004 | cell 678-427-7809 | fax 770 234
6341



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From: Mike O'Neill
[mailto: ]

Sent: Tuesday, October 06, 2015 11:21 AM

To: 'James Hazard'

Cc: Neiditz, Jon; 'WG UMA'; 'ProjectVRM list'

Subject: RE: [projectvrm] Re: [WG-UMA] The Death of
Safe Harbor is the Ultimate VRM and UMA Legal Opportunity


Correct. Consent must be “freely given, specific and
informed”. Even if the basis is “legitimate interest” they still have the
right to
opt-out, by automated means (if that is still in

the GDPR).


From: James Hazard
[mailto: ]

Sent: 06 October 2015 15:48

To: Mike O'Neill
< >

Cc: Neiditz, Jon
< >;
WG UMA
< >;
ProjectVRM list

< >

Subject: Re: [projectvrm] Re: [WG-UMA] The Death of
Safe Harbor is the Ultimate VRM and UMA Legal Opportunity


So, roughly,


?/


"I consent to You taking the Specified Personal
Information to the US.  You agree to: protect it, use it only for Specified
Purposes,
inform me of Leaks, and Destroy it when no longer

needed for the Specified Purposes or I ask You to."



Can a person give non-revocable consent to use of
data within EU?


/?






On Tue, Oct 6, 2015 at 4:21 PM, Mike O'Neill
< >
wrote:


    Consent must be “freely given”, so IMO it follows
that it must be revocable (with a “sunset”). Article 29 and many DPAs also
have
said that.






    From: James Hazard
[mailto: ]

    Sent: 06 October 2015 14:53

    To: Neiditz, Jon
< >

    Cc: WG UMA
< >;
ProjectVRM list
< >

    Subject: [projectvrm] Re: [WG-UMA] The Death of
Safe Harbor is the Ultimate VRM and UMA Legal Opportunity




    Do you mean that consent of the person permits
transfer of data, but consent is necessarily revocable and data must be
destroyed?


    On Oct 6, 2015 3:40 PM, "Neiditz, Jon"
< >
wrote:


          Why?


          The Advocate General's opinion and the
Court's decision both turn on the inability of Safe Harbor to prevent
surveillance.  NO
permitted basis for data transfer

          prevents surveillance, not Model Clauses,
not Binding Corporate Rules (BCRs).  Logically, if probably not in immediate
corporate and EU national practice, the

          only bulletproof basis for data transfer to
the US is now the ever-so-revocable CONSENT, which presumes no fictitious
protection from surveillance.


          See also:  
https://www.linkedin.com/pulse/good-morning-safe-harbor-dead-what-does-mean-now-later-jon-neiditz?trk=prof-post


          Your thoughts?


          Jon Neiditz

          Kilpatrick Townsend & Stockton LLP

          Suite 2800 | 1100 Peachtree Street NE |
Atlanta, GA 30309-4528

          office 404 815 6004  | cell 678-427-7809 |
fax 770 234 6341

          

| www.kilpatricktownsend.com


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